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Why is it required tobe 51% owner occupancy for ...

why is it required tobe 51% owner occupancy for condo reverse mortgage


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2 helpful answers

Reverse Mortgage Specialist

That rule is for all FHA-insured mortgages, not just Reverse Mortgages.

HUD feels renters don't take the same level of care of the property they're renting, compared to non-renters.  So when you get too many renters, the condo won't retain the same value.

Posted 2009-08-31T00:51:14Z

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