I am quite aware of the two viruses and that each will usually reside in the preferred area. But it is possible to have either or in the other region, hsv1 on the mouth and hsv2 on the genitals. I am really trying to find out that if a person who knows that he has hsv1 orally, but then tests positive for both, without ever having genital symptom(and I also know that is possible)isn't it possible for him to have them both orally?Thank you for your reply.