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Mortgage/underwritng

When applying for a mortgage, how is the debt-to-income ratio affected when an exisiting property has a rental payment equalling its mortgage payment?


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I'm making some assumptions here, so please excuse me if this doesn't quite answer what you were asking.  I'm assuming this is a rental property you own, and that you're applying for a mortgage on another property.  Unless you get a great mortgage lender that can see past the numbers, if the rental income equals the mortgage payment, you have a 100% debt to income ratio.  If you have sufficient equity in the rental, it may not be a major problem but if you've got significant other debt you'll have to fight hard to get a lender to set the rental property aside when figuring your ratios.  I've done it, but it wasn't easy.  I had to find a mortgage broker that would go to bat for me with the lenders.

Posted 2009-11-25T05:11:35Z
 
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Not a great answer I admit - but it will vary from lender to lender. Traditionally lenders have ignored rental income so you'd have the mortgage debt but no income to cover it. Although you might find a lender who can help providing you have a proper tenancy agreement.

Good luck.

Posted 2009-11-26T10:13:55Z

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